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June 24, 2005

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» Kelo: The Road To Serfdom from Villainous Company
Last week the half-vast editorial staff observed with some snark that certain members of the Court will do almost anything to avoid coming into contact with the actual language of the Constitution: The fiendish members of this plot took the... [Read More]

» Sean Sirrine: Capitalistic Socialism, or Kelo v. New London from De Novo
Wow, there have been so many stories on this topic that I’ve been spending all my time reading rather than posting my own views on this subject. (Check out PG’s view at De Novo for the possible public reaction.) Now that I have a chance, I’m not sure w... [Read More]

Comments

I take it the author is libertarian leaning. He says, "To take the property of A and give it to B is simply illegitimate—a violation of the very purposes of government." This strikes me as controversial, and worthy of elaboration and further argument to be taken seriously.

What about the 16th Amendment, authorizing a federal income tax? As a logistical matter, how would a government function without the capacity to seize assets and use them for its own purposes? As the author must be well aware,

I also think it's highly unlikely that John Paul Stevens and the other Justices of the Supreme Court don't understand or care about political philosophy. In a sense, their view of the judiciary's correct role in the U.S. government is a political philosophy, simply one that the author, and myself to a lesser extent, disagrees with.

I didn't think anything about this tortured decision could make me laugh, but you've managed it. Best thing I've read all day.

Thanks :)

Andrew Winters,

Come on! A tranfer from A to B is in reference to a tranfer from one private party to another. Your comment that the government can sieze property for itself has absolutely no relevance whatsoever.

In fact that is why we're all upset. If the government was transfering this land to itself there would be no outcry!

Great post Tim (same goes for the other one on Kelo you wrote here)! It's good to see you back in the blogosphere.

I don't think it's irrelevant because obviously the government ultimately spends (or wastes) all the money/ property it seizes. So the difference is only one of attenuation. Ultimately the government takes property from some and gives it to others. So what if it's not the same exact property. In the end the effect is the same -- some are enriched while others are deprive, the government being the medium. No it's not "justifiable" but it's practical. The "justification" (i.e., "law") comes later. The law's justification for the taking ultimately isn't any more correct or incorrect than the property owner's justification for possessing the property in the first place! They both are only justifications for the posession of power -- seizure of it in the first instance, and maintenance of it in the second.


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