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June 29, 2009

Comments

Ken at Popehat has a post discussing the French Solution to the Muslim Problem, namely, make women remove their garmets of oppression.

This, respectfully, is begging the question -- presuming from the outset that Muslim women wear a burka by definition out of oppression. No doubt some do, using a definition of oppression that we could agree upon. But some do not, at least using any definition of oppression that doesn't cover everybody everywhere.

Does it really make sense to speak of "free choices," though, when discussing Muslim women? As a Western man, I do indeed make many free choices that limit my freedom. Can we really say the same is true of Muslim women?

Yes. At least if we use a legal definition of freedom rather than a purely philosophical one. My point was that this sort of philosophical argument could be made about almost everyone. The West/non-West distinction you are suggesting could just as easily be a rich/poor distinction. It can be used as a tool to justify nearly any government regulation of conduct.

Also,

An ignorant 19-year-old from a farming community, I found Pascal's Wager reasonable.

If you don't give up on the philosophizing and have those units in the South Ridge repaired by midday, there'll be hell to pay.

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